A person's desires for a comfortable life and family security represent _________ values, whereas his or her desires to be honest and hard working represent _________ values.

A person's desires for a comfortable life and family security represent _________ values, whereas his or her desires to be honest and hard working represent _________ values.

(a) terminal; instrumental
(b) instrumental; terminal
(c) universal; individual
(d) individual; universal








Answer: A

In respect to the link between bad management and ethical behavior, research shows that _________.

In respect to the link between bad management and ethical behavior, research shows that _________.

(a) managers who set unrealistic goals can cause unethical behavior
(b) most whistleblowers just want more pay
(c) only top managers really serve as ethics role models
(d) a good code of ethics makes up for any management deficiencies







Answer: A

At what Kohlberg calls the _________ level of moral development, an individual can be expected to act consistent with peers, meet obligations, and follow rules of social conduct.

At what Kohlberg calls the _________ level of moral development, an individual can be expected to act consistent with peers, meet obligations, and follow rules of social conduct.

(a) postconventional
(b) conventional
(c) preconventional
(d) nonconventional








Answer: B

If a manager takes a lot of time explaining to a subordinate why he did not get a promotion and sincerely listens to his concerns, this is an example of an attempt to act ethically according to _________ justice.

If a manager takes a lot of time explaining to a subordinate why he did not get a promotion and sincerely listens to his concerns, this is an example of an attempt to act ethically according to _________ justice.

(a) utilitarian
(b) commutative
(c) interactional
(d) universal








Answer: C

Which ethical position has been criticized as a source of "ethical imperialism"?

Which ethical position has been criticized as a source of "ethical imperialism"?

(a) Individualism
(b) Absolutism
(c) Utilitarianism
(d) Relativism








Answer: B

Two employees are talking about ethics in their workplaces. Jay says that ethics training and codes of ethical conduct are worthless; Maura says they are the only ways to ensure ethical behavior by all employees. Who is right, and why?

Two employees are talking about ethics in their workplaces. Jay says that ethics training and codes of ethical conduct are worthless; Maura says they are the only ways to ensure ethical behavior by all employees. Who is right, and why?

(a) Jay—no one really cares about ethics at work.
(b) Maura—only the organization can influence ethical behavior.
(c) Neither Jay nor Maura—training and codes can encourage but never guarantee ethical behavior.
(d) Neither Jay nor Maura—only the threat of legal punishment will make people act ethically.









Answer: C

Someone who exposes the ethical misdeeds of others in an organization is usually called a/an _________.

Someone who exposes the ethical misdeeds of others in an organization is usually called a/an _________.

(a) whistleblower
(b) ethics advocate
(c) ombudsman
(d) stakeholder







Answer: A

According to research on ethics in the workplace, _________ is/are often a major and frequent source of pressures that create ethical dilemmas for people in their jobs.

According to research on ethics in the workplace, _________ is/are often a major and frequent source of pressures that create ethical dilemmas for people in their jobs.

(a) Declining morals in society
(b) Long work hours
(c) Low pay
(d) Requests or demands from bosses








Answer: D

If a manager fails to enforce a late-to-work policy for all workers—that is, by allowing some favored employees to arrive late without penalties—this would be considered a violation of _________.

If a manager fails to enforce a late-to-work policy for all workers—that is, by allowing some favored employees to arrive late without penalties—this would be considered a violation of _________.

(a) human rights
(b) personal values
(c) distributive justice
(d) cultural relativism







Answer: C

A business owner makes a decision to reduce a plant's workforce by 10% to cut costs and be able to save jobs for the other 90% of employees. Th is decision could be justified as ethical by using the _________ approach to moral reasoning.

A business owner makes a decision to reduce a plant's workforce by 10% to cut costs and be able to save jobs for the other 90% of employees. Th is decision could be justified as ethical by using the _________ approach to moral reasoning.

(a) utilitarian
(b) individualism
(c) justice
(d) moral rights







Answer: A

When managers make decisions based on solid facts and information, this is known as _________.

When managers make decisions based on solid facts and information, this is known as _________.

(a) continuous improvement
(b) evidence-based management
(c) Theory Y
(d) The scalar chain







Answer: B

If an organization is considered an open system, work activities that turn resources into outputs are part of the _________ process.

If an organization is considered an open system, work activities that turn resources into outputs are part of the _________ process.

(a) input
(b) transformation
(c) output
(d) feedback








Answer: B

The highest level in Maslow's hierarchy is _________.

The highest level in Maslow's hierarchy is _________.

(a) safety
(b) esteem
(c) self-actualization
(d) physiological









Answer: C

The big interest today in _________ refers to the management practice of using mathematics and computing power to examine "big data" for insights on business.

The big interest today in _________ refers to the management practice of using mathematics and computing power to examine "big data" for insights on business.

(a) continuous improvement
(b) Theory X
(c) analytics
(d) total quality management





Answer: A

____ management assumes people are complex, with widely varying needs.

____ management assumes people are complex, with widely varying needs.

(a) Classical
(b) Neoclassical
(c) Behavioral
(d) Modern






Answer: C

When a worker is a responsible parent, makes car payments, and is active in local organizations, how might Argyris explain her poor work performance?

When a worker is a responsible parent, makes car payments, and is active in local organizations, how might Argyris explain her poor work performance?

(a) She isn't treated as an adult at work.
(b) Managers are using Theory Y assumptions.
(c) Organizational subsystems are inefficient.
(d) She doesn't have the right work skills.







Answer: A

If an organization was performing poorly, what would Henri Fayol most likely advise as a way to improve things?

If an organization was performing poorly, what would Henri Fayol most likely advise as a way to improve things?

(a) teach managers to better plan, organize, lead, and control
(b) give workers better technology
(c) promote only the best workers to management
(d) find ways to improve total quality management









Answer: A

One of the conclusions from the Hawthorne studies was that _________.

One of the conclusions from the Hawthorne studies was that _________.

(a) motion studies could improve performance
(b) groups can sometimes restrict the productivity of their members
(c) people respond well to monetary incentives
(d) supervisors should avoid close relations with their subordinates







Answer: B

Which principle states that a person should only receive orders from one boss in an organization?

Which principle states that a person should only receive orders from one boss in an organization?

(a) Scalar
(b) Contingency
(c) Hawthorne
(d) Unity of command






Answer: D

Which of the following is one of the characteristics of Weber's ideal bureaucracy?

Which of the following is one of the characteristics of Weber's ideal bureaucracy?

(a) Few rules and procedures
(b) Impersonality
(c) Promotion by privilege not by merit
(d) Ambiguous hierarchy of authority






Answer: B

When a manager puts Danté in a customer relations job because he has strong social needs and gives Sherrill lots of daily praise because she has strong ego needs, he is displaying _________.

When a manager puts Danté in a customer relations job because he has strong social needs and gives Sherrill lots of daily praise because she has strong ego needs, he is displaying _________.

(a) systems thinking
(b) Theory X
(c) contingency thinking
(d) administrative principles






Answer: C

If your local bank or credit union is a complex system, then the loan-processing department of the bank would be considered a _________.

If your local bank or credit union is a complex system, then the loan-processing department of the bank would be considered a _________.

(a) subsystem
(b) closed system
(c) learning organization
(d) bureaucracy








Answer: A

If Douglas McGregor heard an instructor complaining that her students were lazy and irresponsible, he would say these assumptions _________.

If Douglas McGregor heard an instructor complaining that her students were lazy and irresponsible, he would say these assumptions _________.

(a) violated scientific management ideas
(b) focused too much on needs
(c) would create a negative self-fulfilling prophecy
(d) showed contingency thinking








Answer: C

The Hawthorne studies were important in management history because they raised awareness about the influence of _________ on productivity.

The Hawthorne studies were important in management history because they raised awareness about the influence of _________ on productivity.

(a) organization structures
(b) human factors
(c) physical work conditions
(d) pay and rewards









Answer: B

A management consultant who advises managers to carefully study jobs, train workers to do them with efficient motions, and tie pay to job performance is using ideas from _________.

A management consultant who advises managers to carefully study jobs, train workers to do them with efficient motions, and tie pay to job performance is using ideas from _________.

(a) scientific management
(b) contingency thinking
(c) Henri Fayol
(d) Theory Y






Answer: A

Which of the following is a responsibility that is most associated with the work of a CEO, or chief executive officer, of a large company?

Which of the following is a responsibility that is most associated with the work of a CEO, or chief executive officer, of a large company?

(a) Aligning the company with changes in the external environment
(b) Reviewing annual pay raises for all employees
(c) Monitoring short-term performance of lowerlevel task forces and committees
(d) Conducting hiring interviews for new college graduates







Answer: A

Emotional intelligence helps us to manage ourselves and our relationships effectively. Someone that is high in emotional intelligence will have the capacity to _________, an ability to think before acting and to control potentially disruptive emotions and actions.

Emotional intelligence helps us to manage ourselves and our relationships effectively. Someone that is high in emotional intelligence will have the capacity to _________, an ability to think before acting and to control potentially disruptive emotions and actions.

(a) set agendas
(b) show motivation
(c) self-regulate
(d) act as a leader







Answer: C

The research of Mintzberg and others concludes that most managers _________.

The research of Mintzberg and others concludes that most managers _________.

(a) work at a leisurely pace.
(b) have blocks of private time for planning.
(c) always live with the pressures of performance responsibility.
(d) have the advantages of short workweeks.








Answer: C

When a team leader clarifies desired work targets and deadlines for a work team, he or she is fulfilling the management function of _________.

When a team leader clarifies desired work targets and deadlines for a work team, he or she is fulfilling the management function of _________.

(a) planning
(b) delegating
(c) controlling
(d) supervising








Answer: A

The manager's role in the "upside-down pyramid" view of organizations is best described as providing _________ so that operating workers can directly serve _________.

The manager's role in the "upside-down pyramid" view of organizations is best described as providing _________ so that operating workers can directly serve _________.

(a) direction; top management
(b) leadership; organizational goals
(c) support; customers
(d) agendas; networking









Answer: C

If the direction in managerial work today is away from command and control, what is it toward?

If the direction in managerial work today is away from command and control, what is it toward?

(a) Coaching and facilitating
(b) Telling and selling
(c) Pushing and pulling
(d) Carrot and stick





Answer: A

The intellectual capital equation states: Intellectual Capital _________ Commitment.

The intellectual capital equation states: Intellectual Capital _________ Commitment.

(a) Diversity
(b) Confidence
(c) Competency
(d) Communication









Answer: C

A company buys cloth in one country, has designs made in another country, has the garments sewn in another country, and sells the finished product in yet other countries. Th is firm is actively engaging in the practice of _________.

A company buys cloth in one country, has designs made in another country, has the garments sewn in another country, and sells the finished product in yet other countries. Th is firm is actively engaging in the practice of _________.

(a) job migration
(b) performance effectiveness
(c) value creation
(d) global sourcing










Answer: D

When a manager denies promotion to a qualified worker simply because of personally disliking her because she is Hispanic, this is an example of _________.

When a manager denies promotion to a qualified worker simply because of personally disliking her because she is Hispanic, this is an example of _________.

(a) discrimination
(b) accountability
(c) self-management
(d) a free-agent economy







Answer: A

_____ is the active oversight by boards of directors of top management decisions insuch areas as corporate strategy and financial reporting.

_____ is the active oversight by boards of directors of top management decisions insuch areas as corporate strategy and financial reporting.

(a) Value chain analysis
(b) Productivity
(c) Outsourcing
(d) Corporate governance








Answer: D

An effective manager is someone who helps others to achieve high levels of both _________ and _________.

An effective manager is someone who helps others to achieve high levels of both _________ and _________.

(a) pay; satisfaction
(b) performance; satisfaction
(c) performance; pay
(d) pay; quality of work life








Answer: B

According to Robert Katz, _________ skills are more likely to be emphasized by top managers than by first-line managers.

According to Robert Katz, _________ skills are more likely to be emphasized by top managers than by first-line managers.

(a) human
(b) conceptual
(c) informational
(d) technical







Answer: B

The process of building and maintaining good working relationships with others who may someday help a manager implement his or her work agendas is called _________.

The process of building and maintaining good working relationships with others who may someday help a manager implement his or her work agendas is called _________.

(a) governance
(b) networking
(c) emotional intelligence
(d) entrepreneurship







Answer: B

Win-win problem solving is seldom used because

Win-win problem solving is seldom used because

A. there is a lack of awareness of it.
B. emotional reflexes prevent constructive solutions.
C. it requires both persons' cooperation.
D. win-win problem solving is actually the most used problem-solving style of all.
E. a, b, and c are correct.






Answer: E

Which of the strategies for managing dialectical tensions are most effective, according to research?

Which of the strategies for managing dialectical tensions are most effective, according to research?

A. balance
B. integration
C. recalibration
D. reaffirmation
E. b, c, and d are seen as the most productive






Answer: E

Which of the following is not a characteristic of families described in the text?

Which of the following is not a characteristic of families described in the text?

A. Family systems are interdependent.
B. Family systems are manifested through communication.
C. Family systems are nested.
D. Families are more than just the sum of their parts.
E. All of the above are characteristics of families.







Answer: E

Which of the following does not typically occur in the intensifying stage of interpersonal relationships?

Which of the following does not typically occur in the intensifying stage of interpersonal relationships?

A. The parties begin to take on an identity as a social unit.
B. The parties hint and flirt.
C. Feelings are expressed nonverbally.
D. The parties might take trips together.
E. The parties spend an increasing amount of time together.







Answer: A

When two opposing or incompatible forces exist simultaneously in an interpersonal relationship, the struggle to achieve these opposing goals creates what is called a

When two opposing or incompatible forces exist simultaneously in an interpersonal relationship, the struggle to achieve these opposing goals creates what is called a

A. proximity problem.
B. collectivistic tension.
C. dialectical tension.
D. differentiating end state.
E. counterfeit goal state.






Answer: C

We are often attracted to people who

We are often attracted to people who

A. we find physically attractive.
B. are different but can satisfy our needs.
C. are similar to us.
D. we interact with frequently.
E. All of these choices are correct.







Answer: E

The text suggested that you may react nondefensively to criticism by

The text suggested that you may react nondefensively to criticism by

A. guessing about the specifics of a critic's remarks.
B. criticizing yourself.
C. asking for a "time-out."
D. telling the critic to stop.
E. giving the reasons for your behavior.







Answer: A

The term used to describe messages that people exchange, verbally or nonverbally, about their relationship is

The term used to describe messages that people exchange, verbally or nonverbally, about their relationship is

A. microcommunication.
B. metacommunication.
C. discourse.
D. miscommunication.
E. conversation.







Answer: B

The relational dimension of a message

The relational dimension of a message

A. deals with one or more social needs.
B. makes statements about how the parties feel toward one another.
C. are usually expressed nonverbally.
D. All of these choices are correct.
E. None of these choices are correct.







Answer: D

The most visible way disconfirming messages reinforce one another, as when one attack leads to another and another, is termed a(n)

The most visible way disconfirming messages reinforce one another, as when one attack leads to another and another, is termed a(n)

A. cognitive dissonance reaction.
B. de-escalatory conflict spiral.
C. escalatory conflict spiral.
D. pillow-talk incident.
E. impervious dyad.








Answer: C

The elements of an assertive message are

The elements of an assertive message are

A. behavior, interpretation, feeling, assertion, and intention.
B. behavior, interpretation, feeling, consequence, and intention.
C. assertion, aggression, negotiation, interpretation, and intention.
D. feeling, interpretation, assertion, and consequence.
E. behavior, assertion, aggression, and interpretation.






Answer: B

The degree to which the partners in an interpersonal relationship like or appreciate one another is called

The degree to which the partners in an interpersonal relationship like or appreciate one another is called

A. appreciation.
B. the communication of honesty.
C. affinity.
D. the like-love phenomenon.
E. self-respect.








Answer: C

The benefit of forgiveness is

The benefit of forgiveness is

A. less emotional distress.
B. less aggression.
C. improvement of cardiovascular functioning.
D. restoration of the damaged relationship.
E. All of these choices are beneficial.







Answer: E

A frameshift mutation could result from

A frameshift mutation could result from 

A) a base insertion only.
B) a base deletion only.
C) a base substitution only.
D) deletion of three consecutive bases.
E) either an insertion or a deletion of a base.






Answer: E

What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene?

What is the effect of a nonsense mutation in a gene? 

A) It changes an amino acid in the encoded protein.
B) It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein.
C) It introduces a premature stop codon into the mRNA.
D) It alters the reading frame of the mRNA.
E) It prevents introns from being excised.





Answer: C

Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product?

Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? 

A) a deletion of a codon
B) a deletion of two nucleotides
C) a substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon
D) a substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon
E) an insertion of a codon






Answer: B

In the 1920s Muller discovered that X-rays caused mutation in Drosophila. In a related series of experiments in the 1940s, Charlotte Auerbach discovered that chemicals–she used nitrogen mustards–have a similar effect. A new chemical food additive is developed by a cereal manufacturer. Why do we test for its ability to induce mutation?

In the 1920s Muller discovered that X-rays caused mutation in Drosophila. In a related series of experiments in the 1940s, Charlotte Auerbach discovered that chemicals–she used nitrogen mustards–have a similar effect. A new chemical food additive is developed by a cereal manufacturer. Why do we test for its ability to induce mutation? 

A) We worry that it might cause mutation in cereal grain plants.
B) We want to make sure that it does not emit radiation.
C) We want to be sure that it increases the rate of mutation sufficiently.
D) We want to prevent any increase in mutation frequency.
E) We worry about its ability to cause infection.






Answer: D

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of protein's activity?

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of protein's activity?

A) It might result in a chromosomal translocation.
B) It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon.
C) It might exchange one serine codon for a different serine codon.
D) It might substitute an amino acid in the active site.
E) It might substitute the N-terminus of the polypeptide for the C-terminus.





Answer: D

Suppose that a mutation alters the formation of a tRNA such that it still attaches to the same amino acid (phe) but its anticodon loop has the sequence AAU that binds to the mRNA codon UUA (that usually specifies leucine leu).

Suppose that a mutation alters the formation of a tRNA such that it still attaches to the same amino acid (phe) but its anticodon loop has the sequence AAU that binds to the mRNA codon UUA (that usually specifies leucine leu). 

A) The modified tRNA will cause this mRNA to make only nonfunctioning product.
B) The tRNA-leu will not be able to enter the site of the ribosome to bind to the UUA.
C) One mutated tRNA molecule will be relatively inconsequential because it will compete with many "normal" ones.
D) The tRNA will be so unstable that it will not participate in translation.
E) The mutated tRNA will result in an amino acid variant in all copies of the protein.





Answer: C

When the function of the newly made polypeptide is to be secreted from the cell where it has been made, what must occur?

When the function of the newly made polypeptide is to be secreted from the cell where it has been made, what must occur? 

A) It must be translated by a ribosome that remains free of attachment to the ER.
B) Its signal sequence must target it to the ER, from which it goes to the Golgi.
C) It has a signal sequence that must be cleaved off before it can enter the ER.
D) It has a signal sequence that targets it to the cell's plasma membrane where it causes exocytosis.
E) Its signal sequence causes it to be encased in a vesicle as soon as it is translated.






Answer: B

What is the function of the release factor (RF)?

What is the function of the release factor (RF)? 

A) It separates tRNA in the A site from the growing polypeptide.
B) It binds to the stop codon in the A site in place of a tRNA.
C) It releases the amino acid from its tRNA to allow the amino acid to form a peptide bond.
D) It supplies a source of energy for termination of translation.
E) It releases the ribosome from the ER to allow polypeptides into the cytosol.








Answer: B

When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA, no corresponding tRNA enters the A site. If the translation reaction were to be experimentally stopped at this point, which of the following would you be able to isolate?

When the ribosome reaches a stop codon on the mRNA, no corresponding tRNA enters the A site. If the translation reaction were to be experimentally stopped at this point, which of the following would you be able to isolate? 

A) an assembled ribosome with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA in the P site
B) separated ribosomal subunits, a polypeptide, and free tRNA
C) an assembled ribosome with a separated polypeptide
D) separated ribosomal subunits with a polypeptide attached to the tRNA
E) a cell with fewer ribosomes





Answer: A

The process of translation, whether in prokaryotes or eukaryotes, requires tRNAs, amino acids, ribosomal subunits, and which of the following?

The process of translation, whether in prokaryotes or eukaryotes, requires tRNAs, amino acids, ribosomal subunits, and which of the following? 

A) polypeptide factors plus ATP
B) polypeptide factors plus GTP
C) polymerases plus GTP
D) SRP plus chaperones
E) signal peptides plus release factor




Answer: B

An experimenter has altered the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3' AC. Which of the following hypotheses describes the most likely result?

An experimenter has altered the 3' end of the tRNA corresponding to the amino acid methionine in such a way as to remove the 3' AC. Which of the following hypotheses describes the most likely result? 

A) tRNA will not form a cloverleaf.
B) The nearby stem end will pair improperly.
C) The amino acid methionine will not bind.
D) The anticodon will not bind with the mRNA codon.
E) The aminoacylsynthetase will not be formed.





Answer: C

When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by

When translating secretory or membrane proteins, ribosomes are directed to the ER membrane by 

A) a specific characteristic of the ribosome itself, which distinguishes free ribosomes from bound ribosomes.
B) a signal-recognition particle that brings ribosomes to a receptor protein in the ER membrane.
C) moving through a specialized channel of the nucleus.
D) a chemical signal given off by the ER.
E) a signal sequence of RNA that precedes the start codon of the message.






Answer: B

Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide?

Which of the following is a function of a signal peptide? 

A) to direct an mRNA molecule into the cisternal space of the ER
B) to bind RNA polymerase to DNA and initiate transcription
C) to terminate translation of the messenger RNA
D) to translocate polypeptides across the ER membrane
E) to signal the initiation of transcription






Answer: D

Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes?

Which of the following is the first event to take place in translation in eukaryotes? 

A) elongation of the polypeptide
B) base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
C) binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
D) covalent bonding between the first two amino acids
E) the small subunit of the ribosome recognizes and attaches to the 5' cap of mRNA




Answer: E

There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that

There are 61 mRNA codons that specify an amino acid, but only 45 tRNAs. This is best explained by the fact that 

A) some tRNAs have anticodons that recognize four or more different codons.
B) the rules for base pairing between the third base of a codon and tRNA are flexible.
C) many codons are never used, so the tRNAs that recognize them are dispensable.
D) the DNA codes for all 61 tRNAs but some are then destroyed.
E) competitive exclusion forces some tRNAs to be destroyed by nucleases.







Answer: B

A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be thatA mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that

A mutant bacterial cell has a defective aminoacyl synthetase that attaches a lysine to tRNAs with the anticodon AAA instead of the normal phenylalanine. The consequence of this for the cell will be that

A) none of the proteins in the cell will contain phenylalanine.
B) proteins in the cell will include lysine instead of phenylalanine at amino acid positions specified by the codon UUU.
C) the cell will compensate for the defect by attaching phenylalanine to tRNAs with lysine-specifying anticodons.
D) the ribosome will skip a codon every time a UUU is encountered.
E) none of the options will occur; the cell will recognize the error and destroy the tRNA.






Answer: B

What is the function of GTP in translation?

What is the function of GTP in translation? 

A) GTP energizes the formation of the initiation complex, using initiation factors.
B) GTP hydrolyzes to provide phosphate groups for tRNA binding.
C) GTP hydrolyzes to provide energy for making peptide bonds.
D) GTP supplies phosphates and energy to make ATP from ADP.
E) GTP separates the small and large subunits of the ribosome at the stop codon.






Answer: A

Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the

Accuracy in the translation of mRNA into the primary structure of a polypeptide depends on specificity in the 

A) binding of ribosomes to mRNA.
B) shape of the A and P sites of ribosomes.
C) bonding of the anticodon to the codon.
D) attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.
E) bonding of the anticodon to the codon and the attachment of amino acids to tRNAs.




Answer: E

A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is

A particular triplet of bases in the coding sequence of DNA is AAA. The anticodon on the tRNA that binds the mRNA codon is 

A) TTT.
B) UUA.
C) UUU.
D) AAA.
E) either UAA or TAA, depending on first base wobble.






Answer: C

In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into a eukaryotic cell after he has removed its 5' cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect him to find?

In an experimental situation, a student researcher inserts an mRNA molecule into a eukaryotic cell after he has removed its 5' cap and poly-A tail. Which of the following would you expect him to find? 

A) The mRNA could not exit the nucleus to be translated.
B) The cell recognizes the absence of the tail and polyadenylates the mRNA.
C) The molecule is digested by restriction enzymes in the nucleus.
D) The molecule is digested by exonucleases since it is no longer protected at the 5' end.
E) The molecule attaches to a ribosome and is translated, but more slowly.





Answer: D

In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes, individual exons may be related to which of the following?

In the structural organization of many eukaryotic genes, individual exons may be related to which of the following? 

A) the sequence of the intron that immediately precedes each exon
B) the number of polypeptides making up the functional protein
C) the various domains of the polypeptide product
D) the number of restriction enzyme cutting sites
E) the number of start sites for transcription





Answer: C

Alternative RNA splicing

Alternative RNA splicing 

A) is a mechanism for increasing the rate of transcription.
B) can allow the production of proteins of different sizes from a single mRNA.
C) can allow the production of similar proteins from different RNAs.
D) increases the rate of transcription.
E) is due to the presence or absence of particular snRNPs.




Answer: B

During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction?

During splicing, which molecular component of the spliceosome catalyzes the excision reaction? 

A) protein
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) lipid
E) sugar





Answer: C

A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that

A transcription unit that is 8,000 nucleotides long may use 1,200 nucleotides to make a protein consisting of approximately 400 amino acids. This is best explained by the fact that 

A) many noncoding stretches of nucleotides are present in mRNA.
B) there is redundancy and ambiguity in the genetic code.
C) many nucleotides are needed to code for each amino acid.
D) nucleotides break off and are lost during the transcription process.
E) there are termination exons near the beginning of mRNA.





Answer: A

What is a ribozyme?

What is a ribozyme? 

A) an enzyme that uses RNA as a substrate
B) an RNA with enzymatic activity
C) an enzyme that catalyzes the association between the large and small ribosomal subunits
D) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA as part of the transcription process
E) an enzyme that synthesizes RNA primers during DNA replication





Answer: B

The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following?

The TATA sequence is found only several nucleotides away from the start site of transcription. This most probably relates to which of the following? 

A) the number of hydrogen bonds between A and T in DNA
B) the triplet nature of the codon
C) the ability of this sequence to bind to the start site
D) the supercoiling of the DNA near the start site
E) the 3-D shape of a DNA molecule





Answer: A

A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which of the following might this illustrate?

A part of the promoter, called the TATA box, is said to be highly conserved in evolution. Which of the following might this illustrate? 

A) The sequence evolves very rapidly.
B) The sequence does not mutate.
C) Any mutation in the sequence is selected against.
D) The sequence is found in many but not all promoters.
E) The sequence is transcribed at the start of every gene.





Answer: C

Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase?

Transcription in eukaryotes requires which of the following in addition to RNA polymerase? 

A) the protein product of the promoter
B) start and stop codons
C) ribosomes and tRNA
D) several transcription factors (TFs)
E) aminoacyl synthetase






Answer: D

In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein?

In eukaryotes there are several different types of RNA polymerase. Which type is involved in transcription of mRNA for a globin protein? 

A) ligase
B) RNA polymerase I
C) RNA polymerase II
D) RNA polymerase III
E) primase







Answer: C

Which of the following is a function of a poly-A signal sequence?

Which of the following is a function of a poly-A signal sequence? 

A) It adds the poly-A tail to the 3' end of the mRNA.
B) It codes for a sequence in eukaryotic transcripts that signals enzymatic cleavage ~10?35 nucleotides away.
C) It allows the 3' end of the mRNA to attach to the ribosome.
D) It is a sequence that codes for the hydrolysis of the RNA polymerase.
E) It adds a 7-methylguanosine cap to the 3' end of the mRNA.







Answer: B

RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching?

RNA polymerase in a prokaryote is composed of several subunits. Most of these subunits are the same for the transcription of any gene, but one, known as sigma, varies considerably. Which of the following is the most probable advantage for the organism of such sigma switching? 

A) It might allow the transcription process to vary from one cell to another.
B) It might allow the polymerase to recognize different promoters under certain environmental conditions.
C) It could allow the polymerase to react differently to each stop codon.
D) It could allow ribosomal subunits to assemble at faster rates.
E) It could alter the rate of translation and of exon splicing.





Answer: B

Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic eukaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic gene expression?

Which of the following does not occur in prokaryotic eukaryotic gene expression, but does in eukaryotic gene expression? 

A) mRNA, tRNA, and rRNA are transcribed.
B) RNA polymerase binds to the promoter.
C) A poly-A tail is added to the 3' end of an mRNA and a cap is added to the 5' end.
D) Transcription can begin as soon as translation has begun even a little.
E) RNA polymerase requires a primer to elongate the molecule.







Answer: C

Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes?

Which of the following statements best describes the termination of transcription in prokaryotes?

A) RNA polymerase transcribes through the polyadenylation signal, causing proteins to associate with the transcript and cut it free from the polymerase.
B) RNA polymerase transcribes through the terminator sequence, causing the polymerase to separate from the DNA and release the transcript.
C) RNA polymerase transcribes through an intron, and the snRNPs cause the polymerase to let go of the transcript.
D) Once transcription has initiated, RNA polymerase transcribes until it reaches the end of the chromosome.
E) RNA polymerase transcribes through a stop codon, causing the polymerase to stop advancing through the gene and release the mRNA.



Answer: B

Which of the following provides some evidence that RNA probably evolved before DNA?

Which of the following provides some evidence that RNA probably evolved before DNA? 

A) RNA polymerase uses DNA as a template.
B) RNA polymerase makes a single-stranded molecule.
C) RNA polymerase does not require localized unwinding of the DNA.
D) DNA polymerase uses primer, usually made of RNA.
E) DNA polymerase has proofreading function.






Answer: D

Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon?

Which of the following nucleotide triplets best represents a codon? 

A) a triplet separated spatially from other triplets
B) a triplet that has no corresponding amino acid
C) a triplet at the opposite end of tRNA from the attachment site of the amino acid
D) a triplet in the same reading frame as an upstream AUG
E) a sequence in tRNA at the 3' end








Answer: D

The "universal" genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this can be found if which of the following is true?

The "universal" genetic code is now known to have exceptions. Evidence for this can be found if which of the following is true? 

A) If UGA, usually a stop codon, is found to code for an amino acid such as tryptophan (usually coded for by UGG only).
B) If one stop codon, such as UGA, is found to have a different effect on translation than another stop codon, such as UAA.
C) If prokaryotic organisms are able to translate a eukaryotic mRNA and produce the same polypeptide.
D) If several codons are found to translate to the same amino acid, such as serine.
E) If a single mRNA molecule is found to translate to more than one polypeptide when there are two or more AUG sites.






Answer: A

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?

The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following? 

A) A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism.
B) All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
C) DNA was the first genetic material.
D) The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.
E) Different organisms have different numbers of different types of amino acids.






Answer: A

A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is

A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5' AGT 3'. The corresponding codon for the mRNA transcribed is 

A) 3' UCA 5'.
B) 3' UGA 5'.
C) 5' TCA 3'.
D) 3' ACU 5'.
E) either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base.






Answer: A

The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group?

The nitrogenous base adenine is found in all members of which group? 

A) proteins, triglycerides, and testosterone
B) proteins, ATP, and DNA
C) ATP, RNA, and DNA
D) a glucose, ATP, and DNA
E) proteins, carbohydrates, and ATP




Answer: C

Garrod's information about the enzyme alteration resulting in alkaptonuria led to further elucidation of the same pathway in humans. Phenylketonuria (PKU) occurs when another enzyme in the pathway is altered or missing, resulting in a failure of phenylalanine (phe) to be metabolized to another amino acid: tyrosine. Tyrosine is an earlier substrate in the pathway altered in alkaptonuria. How might PKU affect the presence or absence of alkaptonuria?

Garrod's information about the enzyme alteration resulting in alkaptonuria led to further elucidation of the same pathway in humans. Phenylketonuria (PKU) occurs when another enzyme in the pathway is altered or missing, resulting in a failure of phenylalanine (phe) to be metabolized to another amino acid: tyrosine. Tyrosine is an earlier substrate in the pathway altered in alkaptonuria. How might PKU affect the presence or absence of alkaptonuria? 

A) It would have no effect, because PKU occurs several steps away in the pathway.
B) It would have no effect, because tyrosine is also available from the diet.
C) Anyone with PKU must also have alkaptonuria.
D) Anyone with PKU is born with a predisposition to later alkaptonuria.
E) Anyone with PKU has mild symptoms of alkaptonuria.






Answer: B

Garrod hypothesized that "inborn errors of metabolism" such as alkaptonuria occur because

Garrod hypothesized that "inborn errors of metabolism" such as alkaptonuria occur because 

A) metabolic enzymes require vitamin cofactors, and affected individuals have significant nutritional deficiencies.
B) enzymes are made of DNA, and affected individuals lack DNA polymerase.
C) many metabolic enzymes use DNA as a cofactor, and affected individuals have mutations that prevent their enzymes from interacting efficiently with DNA.
D) certain metabolic reactions are carried out by ribozymes, and affected individuals lack key splicing factors.
E) genes dictate the production of specific enzymes, and affected individuals have genetic defects that cause them to lack certain enzymes.






Answer: A

Which of the following variations on translation would be most disadvantageous for a cell?

Which of the following variations on translation would be most disadvantageous for a cell?

A) translating polypeptides directly from DNA
B) using fewer kinds of tRNA
C) having only one stop codon
D) lengthening the half-life of mRNA
E) having a second codon (besides AUG) as a start codon






Answer: A

The spontaneous loss of amino groups from adenine in DNA results in hypoxanthine, an uncommon base, opposite thymine. What combination of proteins could repair such damage?

The spontaneous loss of amino groups from adenine in DNA results in hypoxanthine, an uncommon base, opposite thymine. What combination of proteins could repair such damage? 

A) nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
B) telomerase, primase, DNA polymerase
C) telomerase, helicase, single-strand binding protein
D) DNA ligase, replication fork proteins, adenylyl cyclase
E) nuclease, telomerase, primase






Answer: A

A biochemist isolates, purifies, and combines in a test tube a variety of molecules needed for DNA replication. When she adds some DNA to the mixture, replication occurs, but each DNA molecule consists of a normal strand paired with numerous segments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides long. What has she probably left out of the mixture?

A biochemist isolates, purifies, and combines in a test tube a variety of molecules needed for DNA replication. When she adds some DNA to the mixture, replication occurs, but each DNA molecule consists of a normal strand paired with numerous segments of DNA a few hundred nucleotides long. What has she probably left out of the mixture? 

A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA ligase
C) nucleotides
D) Okazaki fragments
E) primase






Answer: B

E. coli cells grown on ¹5N medium are transferred to ¹4N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment?

E. coli cells grown on ¹5N medium are transferred to ¹4N medium and allowed to grow for two more generations (two rounds of DNA replication). DNA extracted from these cells is centrifuged. What density distribution of DNA would you expect in this experiment? 

A) one high-density and one low-density band
B) one intermediate-density band
C) one high-density and one intermediate-density band
D) one low-density and one intermediate-density band
E) one low-density band





Answer: D

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around 

A) polymerase molecules.
B) ribosomes.
C) histones.
D) a thymine dimer.
E) satellite DNA.






Answer: C

The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis

The elongation of the leading strand during DNA synthesis 

A) progresses away from the replication fork.
B) occurs in the 3' ? 5' direction.
C) produces Okazaki fragments.
D) depends on the action of DNA polymerase.
E) does not require a template strand.






Answer: D

In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules?

In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules? 

A) A = G
B) A + G = C + T
C) A + T = G + T
D) A = C
E) G = T






Answer: B

What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized?

What is the basis for the difference in how the leading and lagging strands of DNA molecules are synthesized? 

A) The origins of replication occur only at the 5' end.
B) Helicases and single-strand binding proteins work at the 5' end.
C) DNA polymerase can join new nucleotides only to the 3' end of a growing strand.
D) DNA ligase works only in the 3' ? 5' direction.
E) Polymerase can work on only one strand at a time.





Answer: C

In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria and mice, Griffith found that

In his work with pneumonia-causing bacteria and mice, Griffith found that 

A) the protein coat from pathogenic cells was able to transform nonpathogenic cells.
B) heat-killed pathogenic cells caused pneumonia.
C) some substance from pathogenic cells was transferred to nonpathogenic cells, making them pathogenic.
D) the polysaccharide coat of bacteria caused pneumonia.
E) bacteriophages injected DNA into bacteria.







Answer: C

You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent

You briefly expose bacteria undergoing DNA replication to radioactively labeled nucleotides. When you centrifuge the DNA isolated from the bacteria, the DNA separates into two classes. One class of labeled DNA includes very large molecules (thousands or even millions of nucleotides long), and the other includes short stretches of DNA (several hundred to a few thousand nucleotides in length). These two classes of DNA probably represent 

A) leading strands and Okazaki fragments.
B) lagging strands and Okazaki fragments.
C) Okazaki fragments and RNA primers.
D) leading strands and RNA primers.
E) RNA primers and mitochondrial DNA.






Answer: A